Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 01:54
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
For the First Time, Scientists Spot Water Around a Young Star Similar to Our Sun - The Daily Galaxy
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Is the media protecting Kamala Harris?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?